Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 30.06.2025 09:09
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why is my ex trying to provoke an argument with me?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Why was Boromir corrupted by the One Ring, but not Faramir in The Lord of the Rings?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.